yes, and no…Rev 12, like the rest of the book, is a mixture of symbols, explanations and descriptions of literal reality…that is, it isn’t all symbols, or all explanations, or all descriptions of literal reality…for instance, the phrase, “that old serpent, called the devil, and satan”, v.9, is an evident mixture of a symbol with its immediate explanation…to break it down:
symbol = “that old serpent”
explanation = “called the devil, and satan”
this chapter is remarkable because satan is described in terms of an initial symbol, “a great red dragon”, v.3, along with an identifying description, “his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven”, v.4…in the unlikely event that we don’t clue into the identity of this dragon on the basis of this and other descriptions, v.9 simplifies things by equating the dragon to the serpent before explicitly explaining it…
in general, a correct reading of a symbolic book like Revelation, but also some of the parables of christ, will follow what can be considered insider nuances that flow from symbols to explanations to descriptions of literal realities…certainly Revelation’s inside audience would have had at least some of its narrative explained to them, eg., 1 Thess 3:4; 2 These 2:1-10…but obviously, in the age of egw, we are much more knowledgeable than the apostles, or even the reformers, would have been…
in the context of what we are discussing, symbols identified in symbolic scripture can be applied retroactively to non-symbolic scripture…for instance, the serpent identified as satan in Revelation can be used to inform our understanding of Genesis 3, even if it is the case that moses may not have understood what he was witnessing in vision or a dream, or writing about…this is one of the more spectacular qualitative aspects of true inspiration: it isn’t constrained by time, or immediate context, or even the level of knowledge of the person writing it…hence, we can fully accept that Hosea 11:1 is a prophecy about christ, Matthew 2:15, even though it’s immediate context is about israel, collectively, and the prophet hosea would not have perceived matthew’s meaning in what he was writing…
of course one purpose for Revelation’s symbolism would have been to camouflage it’s predictions from the true church’s enemies…that is, the people of god, up to the age of the reformers - which is when the 1260 days or yrs, v.6, expired - would have understood what their papal enemies did not, thus conferring them an advantage, and some protection…this will undoubtedly be the case in the future…that is, the 144,000 will understand what their demon-possessed persecutors do not, which is that the 2nd coming of christ will prevent their slaughter (although one does wonder how this can be, given the ubiquitous dessemination of Great Controversy, and other prophecies)…