Brakelite,
You say Jesus is the first begotten of the Father. Then go on to say "Not co-eternal as the trinity declares. And then launch into a defense of your position.
Tell me sir, how do you reconcile your reasoning with the following scriptures witnessed by the Apostle and Prophet John, a plague angel, The Father , the Son and the Holy Spirit ?
Revelation 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John.
So far we have John telling us God gave Jesus a revelation and sent by an angel to John. Please note, we’re not yet sure if it was Jesus or God that sent the angel.
Revelation 22:6 And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done. (And I would like to point you to who is saying this. If you go back to Rev 21:9 you will see that the ‘he’ who is speaking here is a plague angel.)
Rev. 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.
Uh OH! If we compare Rev.22 vs 6 with Rev. 22 vs 16 we see that the Lord God of the Holy Prophets IS Jesus Christ. (And ironically even though they believe Jesus was created as you do, The Jehovah’s Witness Bible actually reads LORD GOD JEHOVAH) in Rev. 22 verse 6. Lord God Jehovah…was NOT created.
If you also look to Chapter 2 and 3 of The Revelation where Jesus is speaking to the seven churches you will find "He that has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the Churches.
So the message is from Jesus, the Father who gave the Revelation to Jesus, recorded by John, interpreted by the Holy Spirit and delivered to John by an angel!
I don’t believe you’re going to find that kind of affirmation in such a compact series of related verses ANYWHERE else in scripture.
Furthermore, Jesus is referred to by John as the ‘first begotten of the dead’ in Rev.1. How do you see that? If Jesus is the ‘first begotten of the Father’ meaning God created him, then "first begotten of the dead’ means the dead created him, also?
I would suggest that first begotten of the Father does not mean God created him as the JW’s believe, but rather the eternal God the Son, became one with humankind when the Son of God, the Son of man, was born of a virgin. I would suggest that first begotten of the dead refers to His sacrifice for us, where for the first time in infinity he was unable to be connected to the Father…essentially experiencing a second death experience, but not dying the eternal, second death. He is fully God…and ‘the first and the last’, as Jesus refers to himself, in the Revelation,…the first to experience the second death experience and the last to do so…and yet live…He is God…and there is no greater view of who our God is then knowing what our God did for us, first in coming to and living as mankind in this dark World , and then dying for us in such a manner as EG White describes in the Desire of Ages.
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Satan with his fierce temptations wrung the heart of Jesus. The Saviour could not see through the portals of the tomb. Hope did not present to Him His coming forth from the grave a conqueror, or tell Him of the Father’s acceptance of the sacrifice. He feared that sin was so offensive to God that Their separation was to be eternal. Christ felt the anguish which the sinner will feel when mercy shall no longer plead for the guilty race. It was the sense of sin, bringing the Father’s wrath upon Him as man’s substitute, that made the cup He drank so bitter, and broke the heart of the Son of God. {DA 753.2}”